Question of the Day for Wednesday, January 16, 2013

Eucharist and the Orthodox

Q. I was once told by a priest that if I were in a country that did not have a Catholic church, but there was a Greek Orthodox church, that I could receive the Eucharist, that it would not be a sin, and that it would be a valid Communion. My sister thinks I was told wrong. The priest said it had to be either a Catholic church not available or an emergency to be able to do this. My sister said they are not under the pope and therefore I cannot receive a valid Communion. I say that they still believe as we do that the Eucharist is truly the body and blood of Jesus Christ at the time the bread and wine are consecrated. Please let me know what the truth of this is.

J.T., South Bend, Ind.

A. Here is a reply from Father Francis Hoffman, J.C.D.:

The priest is correct on this matter, and your sister is partially wrong. Let me explain. This question is answered in the Code of Canon Law under the topic communicatio in sacris, or, as we say in English, “intercommunion.” Let me print the pertinent section of the Code for your reference.

Read the rest of the answer at Our Sunday Visitor: http://www.osv.com/TCANav/TCAQuestionoftheDay/Jan14182013/tabid/8681/Default.aspx

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Posted on January 16, 2013, in Uncategorized. Bookmark the permalink. Leave a comment.

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